CBSE 10th Science Exam 2024: Final Topic-Wise Most Important Questions For Last Minute Revision (2nd MARCH )

 

  #. IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR GRADE 10TH LAST MINUTE REVISION FOR SCIENCE .

CBSE 10th exams are going on and your Science paper is on 2nd March 2024. You have only a few hours left for the Science exam. 

Therefore, we have introduced students to the best last minute revision tool – the important Topic-Wise Most Important Questions!

This article is for you for CBSE Class 10 Science (Multiple Choice, Assertion-Reason, Case-Based Question, Conceptual Question, Short/Long Question) 4 or 5 marks questions are long answer type questions where students have to answer in the final. A detailed answer with additional information is required to score correctly.

In this, every important question has been sorted and collected, which is very important for your paper, so that the student can score good marks in less time. Answers to all the questions are given together.

CBSE Class 10th Science Important Questions 2023-24

Multiple Choice Question 

1. In which of the following equations, the mass is not same on both the sides?

(a) Word equation
(b) Skeletal equation
(c) Balanced equation
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b)

2. Some reactions require conditions like specific temperature, pressure, etc. While writing chemical equations for such reactions, where are these conditions usually mentioned?

(a) Above the arrow
(b) Along with products
(c) Below the plus signs
(d) Before the reactants

Ans. (a) Above the arrow

3. On adding dilute HCl to copper oxide in a beaker, the solution turns blue green due to formation of

(a) copper(II) hydroxide
(b) copper nitrate
(c) copper (II) chloride
(d) copper sulphate

Ans. (c) copper (II) chloride

4. Calcium carbonate is the chemical formula of

(a) limestone
(b) chalk
(c) marble
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

Ans. (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

5. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?

(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

Ans. (b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

6. Upon receiving a signal, the dendrite tip of a nerve cell sets off a chemical reaction that

(a) creates an electrical impulse in the dendrite.
(b) creates an electrical impulse in the next neuron.
(c) releases some chemicals in the cell body of the neuron.
(d) creates a stimulus.

Ans. (a) creates an electrical impulse in the dendrite.

7. Dwarfism in human beings is caused due to deficiency of

(a) thyroxin
(b) growth hormone
(c) adrenalin
(d) insulin

Ans. (b) growth hormone

8. Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?

(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell.
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell.
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect test.
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell.

Ans. (a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell.

9. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are

(a) stamen and anther
(b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary
(d) stamen and style

Ans. (c) anther and ovary

10. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower?

(a) pollination, fertilisation, seedling, embryo
(b) seedling, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seedling
(d) embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilisation.

Ans. (c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seedling

11. In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by

(a) breaking up of filaments into smaller bits
(b) division of a cell into two cells
(c) division of a cell into many cells
(d) formation of young cells from older cells

Ans. (a) breaking up of filaments into smaller bits

12. Exchange of genetic material takes place in

(a) vegetative reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) budding

Ans. (c) sexual reproduction

13. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.

Ans. (d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.

14. The maleness of a child is determined by

(a) the X chromosome in the zygote.
(b) the Y chromosome in zygote.
(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex.
(d) sex is determined by chance.

Ans. (b) the Y chromosome in zygote.

15. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on the Mendel's laws, a male offspring will inherit which combination of chromosomes?

(a) both the X chromosomes from one of its parents
(b) both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents
(c) combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents
(d) combination of X and Y chromosome from either of its parents

Ans. (d) combination of X and Y chromosome from either of its parents

16. Two lenses of power +2.50 D and -3.75 D are combined to form a compound lens. Its focal length in cm will be

(a) 40
(b)-40
(c) 80
(d) -80

Ans. (d) -80

17. As a ray of light entered medium P from medium Q, its velocity increased. What can be said about the refractive index of medium P as compared to that of the medium Q?

(a) It is lower.
(b) It is higher.
(c) It is the same.
(d) Nothing can be said without knowing what medium P and medium Q are.

Ans. (a) It is lower.

18. The full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using

(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirrors

Ans. (b) a convex mirror

19. The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world is

(a) water
(b) forests
(c) wind
(d) sunlight

Ans. (b) forests

20. The pH range most conducive for life of fresh water plants and animals is

(a) 6.5-7.5
(b) 2.0-3.5
(c) 3.5-5.0
(d) 9.0-10.5

Ans. (a) 6.5-7.5

21. Select the wrong statement.

(a) Forests provide variety of products.
(b) Forests have greater plant diversity.
(c) Forests do not conserve soil.
(d) Forests conserve water.

Ans. (c) Forests do not conserve soil.

22. Arabari forests of Bengal is dominated by

(a) Tea
(b) Sal
(c) Bamboo
(d) Mangroove

Ans. (b) Sal

23. Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to

(a) social reasons
(b) economic reasons
(c) environmental reasons
(d) all the above

Ans. (d) all the above

24. Bandharas and Tals are age old water harvesting concepts/structures found in

(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan

Ans. (b) Maharashtra

25. The major ill effect of mono culture practice in forests is on the

(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department

Ans. (a) biodiversity which faces large destruction

26. The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for

(a) monocultures of pine, teak and eucalyptus
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) extensive biodiversity
(d) participation of local people in efficient management of forests

Ans. (b) Chipko Movement

27. A student studies that we should switch off unnecessary lights and fans in order to save the environment. How does switching off unnecessary electrical appliances help the environment?

(a) It reduces the wastage of energy
(b) It generates electricity when switched off
(c) It recycles the amount of energy used
(d) It increases the efficiency of the electrical appliances

Ans. (a) It reduces the wastage of energy

28. Which of these is an example of sustainable development in order to conserve natural resources for the future generation?

(a) cleaning water resources
(b) finding alternate fuel reservoirs
(c) clearing forests to set up new industries
(d) planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining

Ans. (d) planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining

Assertion-Reason Question 

The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) : Brown fumes are produced when lead nitrate is heated.
Reason (R) Nitrogen dioxide gas is produced as a by product due to the decomposition of lead nitrate.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 

2. Assertion(A)The acid must always be added to water with constant stirring.
Reason (R) Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per unit volume.

Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. Assertion (A) Cyton region of nerve fibre collects information for the brain.
Reason (R) Nerve fibres can either have or lack myelin sheath.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Assertion (A) Animals can react to stimuli in different ways.
Reason (R): All animals have a nervous system and an endocrine system involving hormones.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

5. Assertion(4) The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of root is exactly opposite to that on a stem.
Reason (R) Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in root and decreases the rate of growth in stem.

Ans. (c) A is true but R is false.

6. Assertion(A) Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.
Reason (R) Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

7. Assertion (4): Clones are offspring of an organism formed by asexual reproduction.
Reason (R): Clones have exact copies of DNA as their parent.

Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

8. Assertion(4) Pollen grains from the carpel stick to the stigma of stamen.
Reason (R): The fertilised egg cells grow inside the ovules and become seeds.

Ans. (d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) Testes lie in penis outside the body.
Reason (R) Sperms require temperature lower than the body temperature for development.

Ans. (d) A is false but R is true.

10. Assertion(A) Light does not travel in the same direction in all the media.
Reason (R): The speed of light does not change as it enters from one transparent medium to another.

Ans. (c) A is true but R is false.

11. Assertion(4) Mirror formula can be applied to a plane mirror.
Reason (R): A plane mirror is a spherical mirror of infinite focal length.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

12. Assertion (4): Refractive index has no units.
Reason (R) The refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

13. Assertion(A) Dams cause discontentment among people.
Reason (R) Local people are alienated from their land without adequate compensation.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

14. Assertion(A) : Natural resources need to be used carefully.
Reason (R) : Resources are finite in supply and human population is tremendously increasing.

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based Question 

PASSAGE-1

Oxidation is the process of gaining of oxygen, or losing of hydrogen. Reduction is the process of losing of oxygen or gaining of hydrogen. The substance which undergoes oxidation is the reducing agent while the substance which undergoes reduction is known as the oxidising agent. Oxidation and reduction always take place together and these types of reactions are known as redox reactions. Some of the examples of redox reactions are given below:

(i) Which of the following is an oxidising agent?
(a) LiAlH₄
(b) Alkaline KMnO₄
(c) Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (i) (d); Alkaline KMnO₄ and acidified K,Cr₂O₇ both act as oxidizing agents.

(ii) The reducing agent in the reaction IV and V is
(a) Fe and V₂O₅
(b) Ca and Fe
(c) H₂O and Ca
(d) V and H₂O

Ans. (b); Since Ca and Fe is gaining oxygen in the reaction IV and V respectively, i.e., they are undergoing oxidation and therefore they act as reducing agent.

(iii) If hydrogen gas is passed over CuO, then the colour of the product formed is
(a) brown
(b) yellow
(c) green
(d) blue

Ans. (a); If hydrogen gas is passed over CuO, the opposite reaction takes place. The black coating turns brown and copper is obtained.

(iv) Out of the examples shown in the table which of the redox reactions is also a combination reaction?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Ans. (b); Since Mg is combining with O₂ to form MgO so it is a combination reaction.

PASSAGE-2

The pH of a solution is a measure of its hydrogen ion (H*) concentration. It is measured generally using pH scale. The values on pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. A pH of 1 is very acidic and corresponds to a high concentration of H+ ions. A pH of 14 is very basic and corresponds to a low concentration of H+ ions. The pH of a neutral solution is 7. The table given below shows the pH and H+ ion concentration of some common aqueous solutions. The leftmost column shows the number of moles of H+ ions in 1 mole of liquid.

(i) How is the hydrogen ion concentration and pH related to each other?

Ans. (i) pH is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration.

(ii) On the basis of above table, arrange the following in the decreasing order of H* concentration. Pure water, tomato juice, milk of magnesia, sea water

Ans. The decreasing order of H+ concentration is Tomato juice > Pure water > Sea water > Milk of magnesia

(iii) A solution of pH 2 is filled in two separate beakers. A few drops of methyl orange and phenolphthalein are added into separate solutions. How will the colour of the indicators change?

Ans. The solution of pH 2 is acidic in nature. So, the colour change is Methyl orange: red; phenolphthalein: colourless 

PASSAGE-3

All metals do not react with oxygen with the same speed. Different metals show different reactivity towards oxygen. For example, potassium and sodium react so vigorously that they catch fire even if kept in the open air. They are, therefore, kept under kerosene or paraffin oil. Metal oxides are solids. They are basic in nature. Metal oxides being basic turn red litmus to blue. Some metal oxides such as aluminium oxide, zinc oxide, etc., show both acidic as well as basic behaviour.

(i) Name two metals that react violently with cold water.

Ans.  Metals like potassium and sodium react violently with cold water.

(ii) An element X forms an oxide X,O, which is basic in nature. What type of element is 'X'?

Ans. Since element X forms an oxide which is basic in nature and therefore 'X' is a metal.

(iii) What happens to the red litmus when it is treated with the solution of ash obtained after burning magnesium ribbon in air?

Ans. When magnesium is heated, it burns with a dazzling white flame to form magnesium oxide. This metal oxide is basic in nature and thus turns red litmus to blue.

PASSAGE-4

When we touch the leaves of a chhui-mui ('touch-me-not' plant of the Mimosa family), they begin to fold up and droop. When a seed germinates, the root goes down and the stem comes up in the air. Plants show two different types of movements - one dependent on growth and the other independent of growth. The plants also use electrical-chemical means to convey information from cell to cell, but unlike in animals, there is no specialised tissue in plants for the conduction of information. In animals some cells must change shape in order for movement to happen. Instead of the specialised proteins found
in animal muscle cells, plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them resulting in swelling or shrinking and therefore changing shapes. More commonly, plants respond to stimuli slowly by growing in a particular direction. Because this growth is directional, it appears as if the plant is moving.

(i) The movement in a plant caused as a result of differential growth is called

(a) tactic movement
(b) tropic movement
(c) turgor movement
(d) growth movement

Ans. (d); Plant movement is of two types: growth movement and turgor movement. Growth movement occurs by differential growth of plants while turgor movement is caused by changes in turgidity of the cells.

(ii) The figure given below represents the types of plant movements.

Identify X, Y, Z and choose the correct option.
(a) X-Haptotropism, Y-Chemotropism and Z-Geotropism
(b) X-Chemotropism, Y-Hydrotropism and Z-Geotropism
(c) X-Geotropism, Y-Haptotropism and Z-Hydrotropism
(d) X-Phototropism, Y-Hydrotropism and Z-Geotropism

Ans. (b); In the given figure, X, Y and Z represents chemotropism, hydrotropism and geotropism respectively.

(iii) Choose the incorrect combination of information provided in the following table.

Ans. Ans. (b); The folding or drooping of leaves of 'touch-me-not' plants is growth independent movement.

(iv) Which of the following is a tropic movement?

(a) Response of plant to touch
(b) Movement due to change in temperature
(c) Movement induced by the change in the light intensity
(d) Response of plants to gravity

Ans. (d); Response to gravity is geotropism. Hence, it is a tropic movement.

PASSAGE-5

Reflex action is a rapid, automatic response to a stimulus which is not under the voluntary control of the brain. Thus, a reflex action is the one which we perform automatically. It is a comparatively simple form of behaviour in which the same stimulus produces the same response every time. If we unknowingly touch a hot plate, we immediately move our hand away from it. Moving our hand away on touching a hot plate is an example of reflex action. In a reflex action, we are unaware of what is going to happen to us and are done without thinking. How do we respond to it? We respond to it by the process of detecting the signal or the input and responding to it by an output action. Such a connection is commonly called a reflex arc. Nerves from all over the body meet in a bundle in the spinal cord on their way to the brain. Reflex arcs are formed in this spinal cord itself, although the information input also goes on to reach the brain.

(i) Reflex arc consists of

(a) motor nerve
(b) sensory nerve
(c) both motor and sensory nerve
(d) mixed nerve

Ans. (c); Reflex arc is a neural pathway that controls the reflex. It includes sensory nerve and a motor nerve with a synapse in between.

(ii) The given figure represents the path of message from the receptor to the effector.

In the given figure, identify "X" and its function.
(a) It is a sensory neuron that carries the message from the receptor to the central nervous system.
(b) It is a motor neuron that carries the message from the central nervous system to the effector.
(c) It is a sensory neuron that carries the message from the central nervous system to the effector.
(d) It is a motor neuron that carries the message from the receptor to the central nervous system.

Ans. (a); In the given figure, "X" is a sensory neuron that carries the message from the receptor to the central nervous system (the spinal cord and brain).

(iii) The following stages occur in a reflex action:

1. Receptor detects a stimulus
2. Sensory neuron sends impulses to relay neuron
3. Effector produces a response
4. Motor neuron sends impulses to effector
The correct order of the stages is:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans. (c)

(iv) Which of the given pair of activities doesn't come under reflex action?

(a) Salivation and blinking of eyes
(b) Salivation and sweating
(c) Sweating and breathing
(d) Salivation and coughing

Ans. (c); An automatic (involuntary) neuromuscular action excited by a defined stimulus is called reflex action. Sweating and breathing are not reflex actions.

PASSAGE-6

The sexual act is a very intimate connection of bodies so that may lead to transmission of many diseases. Is it possible to prevent the transmission of such disease? The sexual act always has the potential to lead to pregnancy. Is there any way to avoid pregnancy? It is possible via surgery but this method may be misused by people who do not want a particular child. As reproduction leads to increase in population size, the size of the human population is a cause of concern for many people.

(i) Vasectomy is

(a) also called tubectomy
(b) a method of preventing the passage of eggs
(c) a method of blocking the continuity of oviduct
(d) a method of sterilisation in human males

Ans. (i)—(d); Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilisation and is a permanent form of contraception.

(ii) The given graph indicates the percentage of widely used postpartum contraceptive methods among women of a country.

Out of the given methods, how many are the natural family planning method?

(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 1

Ans. (b); Out of the given methods, there are three natural family planning methods and those are periodic abstinence (fertility awareness) method, use of breastfeeding or lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM), coitus interruptus (withdrawal or pulling out) method.

(iii) Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about reproductive health of humans?

I. Condoms serve the role of mechanical barrier in pregnancies.
II. The copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent ovulation.
III. If the fallopian tube in the female is blocked, the egg will not be able to reach the uterus.
IV. Surgery cannot be used for removal of unwanted pregnancies.

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, III and IV only

Ans. (c); Copper-T prevents pregnancy by disrupting the process of conception and unwanted pregnancies can be removed via surgery.

(iv) Study the table below and select the row that has the incorrect information.

Ans. (c); A condom acts as a physical barrier that prevents sperm from entering the uterus and reaching an egg.

PASSAGE-7

The atmosphere is a blanket of air and a precious natural resource for sustaining life on the Earth. Unfortunately, human activities based on national/personal interests are causing harm to this common resource, notably by depleting the fragile ozone layer, which acts as a protective shield for life on the Earth. Ozone molecules consist of three oxygen atoms. Ozone molecules are exceeding rare: fewer than ten in every million molecules of air. However, for nearly a billion years, their presence in the atmosphere has played a vital role in safeguarding life on Earth. The ozone in the troposphere (up to 110 kilometres above the Earth's surface) is 'bad' ozone which can damage lung tissues and plants. But about 90 per cent of ozone found in the stratosphere (between 10 and 40 kilometres above the Earth's surface) is "good" ozone which plays a beneficial role by absorbing dangerous ultraviolet (UV-B) radiations from the Sun. Without this beneficial ozone layer, humans would be more susceptible to certain diseases due to the increased incidence of ultraviolet rays from the Sun.

(i) Ozone is also formed during thunderstorms. It causes the typical smell after such a storm. Is the ozone formed during thunderstorm 'bad ozone' or 'good ozone?? Give reason.

Ans. (i) It is bad ozone' as it is formed in the troposphere.

(ii) How can increased incidence of ultra-violet rays harm humans?

Ans. (ii) It can cause skin cancer and snow-blindness.

(iii) What destructive effect do chlorofluorocarbons bring about in the atmosphere? Name any two sources of chemicals that are said to deplete ozone.

Ans. (iii) CFCs deplete ozone from ozone shield, resulting in increasing the passage of harmful ultraviolet radiation to the Earth. Nuclear weapons; fertilisers releasing nitrous oxides (N2O).

PASSAGE-8

Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun's light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from chemosythesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.

(i) If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?

(a) 10,000 J
(b) 100 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.

Ans. (b); 100 J

(ii) Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as occupying

(a) First trophic level
(b) Second trophic level
(c) Third trophic level
(d) Fourth trophic level

Ans. (c); Third trophic level

(iii) The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because decomposers:

(a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain.
(b) Do not breakdown organic compounds.
(c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms.
(d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms.

Ans. (a); Act at every trophic level of the food chain

(iv) Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

(a) Decrease in energy in higher trophic levels
(b) Less availability of food
(c) Polluted air
(d) Water

Ans. (a); Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

PASSAGE-9

Wherever we look, we find plastics-be it a food packet, a toy, storage packing, any furniture or an electronic item. According to UN estimates, every year the world uses 500 billion plastic bags and half of this plastic is single-use plastic such as plastic bags, straws, cups, plates and bottles. Plastic is currently the biggest environmental concern. Plastic waste takes a lot of time to decompose naturally. It is harmful for animals who might eat it and can cause severe air pollution on burning. In oceans, pollution is mainly caused due to plastic wastes. Each year, at least eight million tonnes of plastic wastes are released into the oceans which means a full garbage truck every minute. This is damaging the marine life and also threatening human health.

(i) Why has there been huge hue and cry against the use of single-use plastics?

Ans. Single-use plastic is non-biodegradable in nature and thus, harmful to the environment.

(ii) The pH of ocean water as measured using pH paper is found to be 5. What does this pH tell us about the ocean water?

Ans.  The pH 5 tells us that ocean water has become highly acidic.

(iii) Based on the data shown in the graph that follows, which industrial sector produces the most plastic waste? Suggest the alternative that can be used in place of plastic in this sector? 2

Ans. Packaging sector produces the maximum plastic waste. Paper and cardboard can be used in place of plastic in this sector as these are reusable, recyclable and biodegradable. 

PASSAGE-10

Disposal of solid waste materials has become one of the key environmental challenges in almost all major cities of the world. Changes in lifestyles and attitude of humans have resulted in greater amount of waste material particularly in urban areas. Municipal corporations and other local authorities have adopted different mechanisms to meet the emerging challenges.

(i) Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

(a) recycled papers take lots of space
(b) recycled papers can't cover food properly
(c) recycled papers can cause infection
(d) recycled papers are costly

Ans. (c) Recycle papers can cause infection due to release of methane.

(ii) According to the 'Solid Waste Management Rule 2016', the waste should be segregated into three

Ans. 

(iii) The given graph shows the amount of waste generated, dumped and treated in percentage. Identify the reason of low success rate of waste management process.

(a) only 15% of urban India's waste is processed
(b) less than 60% of waste is collected from households
(c) more than 60% of waste is collected from households
(d) both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Very Short Answer Question 

Q. 1. What does the word aqueous (aq) represent in a chemical reaction?

Ans. It represents that the compound is present as a solution in water.

Q. 2. Two solutions X and Y have pH values of 3.0 and 9.5 respectively. Which of these will turn litmus solution from blue to red and which will turn phenolphthalein from colourless to pink?

Ans. X will turn blue litmus to red because it is acidic in nature having pH value less than 7. Y will turn phenolphthalein from colourless to pink because it is basic in nature having pH value greater than 7.

Q.3. Which hormone regulates the concentration of sugar in the blood?

Ans. Insulin secreted by islets of Langerhans of pancreas.

Q. 4. What is the function of pollen grains in flowers?

Ans. Pollen grains are the male gametes which fertilise the egg cell present in the ovule of a flower.

Q. 5. Explain the role of cotyledon and plumule in germination.

Ans. Cotyledon stores food and the plumule acts as future shoot.

Q. 6. What is menopause?

Ans. The period of permanent cessation of menstruation in females, usually occurring between the age of 45 and 50 is called as menopause.

Q. 7. What is syngamy?

Ans. One male gamete fuses with one female gamete or egg. This process of fusion of male and female nuclei is called syngamy.

Q. 8. Define alleles.

Ans. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles, i.e., they are the different forms of the same gene.

Q.9. Which of the following traits are recessive in pea plant? Dwarfness, violet flower, wrinkled seed.

Ans. Dwarfness and wrinkled seeds are the recessive characters.

Q. 10. Give reasons for the appearance of new combinations of characters in the F₂ progeny.

Ans. The tall/short and round/wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.

Q. 11. What is light?

Ans. Light is a form of energy which gives us the sensation of sight or vision.

Q. 12. We often use the word environment. What does it mean?

Ans. Environment is the physical, chemical and biological conditions of the region.

Q. 13. Name the award given in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi.

Ans. Amrita Devi Bishnoi award for wildlife conservation

Q. 14. What are biodiversity hotspots?

Ans. Biodiversity hotspots: are regions rich in biodiversity.

Long Answer Question 

Q.1. (i) Crystals of copper sulphate are heated in a test tube for some time.
(a) What is the colour of copper sulphate crystals before heating, and after heating?
(b) What is the source of liquid droplets seen on the inner upper side of the test tube during the heating process?
(ii) A metal 'X' when dipped in aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate, no reaction is observed whereas when it is dipped in an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate, the pale green solution turns colourless. Identify metal 'X' with reason.

Ans. (i) (a) The colour of copper sulphate crystals before heating is blue and turns white after heating.
(b) The liquid droplets are actually the water droplets. The source of water droplets is the water of crystallisation of hydrated copper sulphate crystals (CuSO4.5H2O).
(ii) When metal 'X' is dipped in aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate no reaction is observed, it means it is less reactive than aluminium. But when it is dipped in ferrous sulphate solution, the solution turns from pale green to colourless, so 'X' is more reactive than iron and thus displaces it from its solution. Therefore, 'X' must be zinc. It reacts with ferrous sulphate to form colourless zinc sulphate solution by displacing iron.
Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)

Q. 2. Which two metals do not corrode easily? Give an example in each case to support that
(i) corrosion of some metals is an advantage.
(ii) corrosion of some metals is a serious problem.

Ans. Gold and platinum.
(i) A thin impervious layer of aluminium oxide forms a protective layer which protects the aluminium metal underneath from further damage.
(ii) Corrosion of iron is a serious problem. Every year enormous amount of money is spent to replace damaged iron and steel structures.

Q. 3. Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements in plants.

Ans. 

Q. 4. Which hormone is released into the blood when its sugar level rises? Name the organ which produces the hormone and describe its effect on blood sugar level. Also name one digestive enzyme that this organ secretes and the function of this enzyme.

Ans. Ans. Insulin hormone is released into the blood when its sugar level rises. Pancreas secretes the insulin hormone. The function of insulin hormone is to lower the blood sugar level. Deficiency of insulin hormone in the body causes a disease known as diabetes. Diabetes is characterised by large quantities of sugar in the blood. The insulin hormone controls the metabolism of sugar. If due to some reason pancreas does not produce and secrete sufficient amount of insulin into blood, then the sugar level in the blood rises. The high sugar level in the blood can cause many harmful effects to the body of person. The person having severe diabetes are treated by giving injection of insulin. The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins, lipase for breakdown of emulsified fats and amylase for breakdown of starch.

Q. 5. Name various plant hormones. Also give their physiological effects on plant growth and development.

Ans. The various functions performed by the plant hormones are:
(i) Auxins promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation. They also promote growth.
(ii) Gibberellins promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation in the presence of auxin. It also help in breaking the dormancy in seeds and buds. It promote the growth in fruits.
(iii) Cytokinins promote cell division and help in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds. It delays the ageing in leaves. It promotes the opening of stomata and also fruit growth.
(iv) Abscisic acid promotes the dormancy in seeds and buds. It promotes the closing of stomata and falling of leaves. It also inhibits growth, reverses the growth promoting effects of auxins and gibberellins. Its effects include wilting of leaves.
(v) Ethylene promotes the falling of leaves, ripening of fruits and helps in breaking bud dormancy.

Q.6. What are reflex actions? Give two examples. Explain a reflex arc.

Ans. A reflex action is defined as a spontaneous, automatic and mechanical response to a stimuli without the will of an individual. In such actions there i no involvement of the brain. All reflex actions are conveyed through the spinal cord by a path called reflex arc. The reflex action travels in the following sequence:

The reflex arc constitutes the following components:
(1) A receptor to perceive the stimulus.
(ii) A sensory or afferent nerve which carries the message from the receptor to the spinal cord.
(iii) The neurons of spinal cord transmit the impulse from afferent neurons to efferent neurons.
(iv) The motor or efferent nerve carries messages from spinal cord to the muscles (effectors) that show the response.
Some examples of reflex actions are:
(i) Blinking of eyes when a foreign particle gets in them.
(ii) Sneezing if an unwanted particle enters the nose.
(iii) Watering of mouth at the sight or smell of good food.
(iv) Withdrawal of foot if a nail comes in the way while walking and pricks the foot.
(v) Immediate withdrawal of hand on touching some hot thing.

Q. 7. Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.

Ans. (i) Characters are controlled by genes.
(ii) Each gene controls one character.
(iii) There may be two or more forms of gene.
(iv) One form may be dominant over the other.
(v) Genes are present on chromosomes.
(vi) An individual has two forms of gene whether similar or dissimilar.
(vii) The two forms separate from each other at the time of gamete formation.
(viii) The two forms are brought together in the zygote.

CBSE Class 10 Science Exam 2024 : Most Important Repeated Questions with Solution; Download PDF (All Chapter).

 

#. MOST REPEATED CBSE BOARD EXAM CHAPTER WISE QUESTIONS AND THEIR ANSWERS IN MATHEMATICS FOR GRADE 10th. 

           ( RAKESH PRATYUSH GUPTA )

As the CBSE Class 10th Science Exam 2024 approaches, students are gearing up for their final preparations. One effective way to enhance your revision is by focusing on the most important and frequently repeated questions from each chapter.

In this article, we have compiled a set of such questions along with detailed solutions. Additionally, a PDF download is provided for easy accessibility, making it a valuable resource for quick revision. Aim for excellence and target a score of 95% in the upcoming Board exams with the help of these essential questions.

Why are these questions golden?

• Repeat Champions: These are the questions that have appeared in previous years' board exams, which are highly likely to appear again.
• Instant Revision Boost: Feeling overwhelmed by the huge syllabus? This targeted approach lets you focus on high-scoring topics, saving your precious time and energy.
• Solution Superheroes: Each question comes with a crystal-clear explanation, helping you understand the concepts like never before.

Here's a Glimpse of the Types of Questions You'll Get

• Case-based questions: Apply your science knowledge to real-life scenarios and solve problems like a pro.
• Assertion-reasoning questions: Test your critical thinking skills by analyzing statements and figuring out what's true and why.
• 1-mark questions: Sharpen your understanding of key concepts with quick, to-the-point questions.
• 2-mark questions: Go a little deeper and concisely explain your answers.
• 3-mark questions: Apply your knowledge to new situations and demonstrate your problem-solving abilities.
• 5-mark questions: Showcase your in-depth understanding of complex topics and impress the examiner with your analytical skills.

Click the link below to download your FREE copy of the Most Important Repeated Questions with Solutions (All Chapters PDF).

Chapters Download

1. Chemical Reactions And Equation

2. Acid Bases And Salts

3. Metal And Non Metals

4. Carbon And Its Compound

5. Periodic Classification Of Elements

6. Life Processes

7. How Do Organisms Reproduce

8. Heredity And Evolution

9. Light Reflection And Refraction

10. Human Eye And Colourful World

11. Electricity

12. Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current

13. Our Environment

Important repeated questions are a great source of attaining knowledge required for the exam. It can also get you possible and potential marks in the exam, thus increasing your overall score. However, we would like to advise students not to completely rely on these questions only. Instead, various other questions should be practised along with the important ones as these are pure suggestions and are formed on the basis of assumptions. 

Bonus Tip: Don't just memorise solutions. Use them as stepping stones to understand the underlying concepts. This will equip you to handle any variations of the questions that might appear.

 

CBSE 10th Exam 2024 : English (First Flight) Important Subjective Question for Last-Minute Revision

 

# . MOST 35 IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FROM ENGLISH ( FIRTST FLIGHT ) CBSE CLASS 10TH. 

BY : RAKESH PRATYUSH GUPTA.

These selected Subjective Questions cover the main themes and messages of the chapters of “First Flight”. Students are encouraged to attempt these questions as part of their last-minute revision strategy. By understanding and practicing these Subjective Questions, students can boost their confidence and performance in the upcoming CBSE 10th English exam.

Literature Questions

Q1. Why do you think Lencho from 'A Letter to God' is able to predict the forthcoming rainfall even before the clouds appear ? Answer in 20-30 words.

Ans. Lencho is able to predict the forthcoming rainfall as he is a farmer and his livelihood depends on the weather. He is in touch with nature and can read its signs well. 

Q2. In 20-30 words, compare the theme of the poem 'Fire and Ice' with the poet's tone. 

Ans. The theme of the poem is that of destruction and the end of the world, which is a grim subject. The tone of the poem however, does not reflect this seriousness and is conversational and assertive. 

Q3. In the poem 'Fire and Ice', which literary device are fire and ice examples of ? In 40-50 words, explain why the poet uses them.

Ans.  In the poem, fire and ice are examples of symbolism. The poet uses them as they paint a vivid picture of destruction in our minds. We can easily imagine humanity being destroyed by raging fires as well as extreme winters. The symbols help the poet to create a lasting impression of emotions like desire and hate which are difficult to visualise by themselves. 

Q4. In 30-40 words, describe the mood of 'His First Flight' towards the end of the chapter. Support the answer with an example from the text.

Ans. When the young seagull finally takes his first flight, the mood is one of celebration. The seagull's family stops threatening him and instead praise him for his first flight by giving him scraps of food and shouting with happiness. 

Q5. His father and mother had come around calling to him shrilly, upbraiding him, threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. In the above line from 'His First Flight,· do you think the seagull's parents took the right approach to make him fly ? In 100-120 words, justify your stance with two reasons. 

Ans. No, I believe that their approach was incorrect because they let their anger take the decision for how to teach the young seagull. This might have made him feel abandoned and unsupported. The parents should have accepted his fear instead of threatening him and let his siblings tease him for it. Rather, they taunted him with his cowardice and isolated him. This added to his fear which affected his confidence and discouraged him. He quietly hid inside the little hole under the ledge. This made him feel that he would never be able to fly like his brothers and sister.

Q6. I was very happy to go behind the strange aeroplane like an obedient child. In 20-30 words, explain why the narrator said the above line in the story 'The Black Aeroplane'. 

Ans. The narrator's aeroplane's systems started malfunctioning inside the storm clouds. So, when the pilot of the black plane signalled to him, he was happy to follow because he had no other way out.

Q7. The pilot in the black aeroplane was an illusion created by the narrator's own mind. Justify the above opinion with reference to the story 'The Black Aeroplane'. In 100-120 words, mention two reasons why you think the narrator's mind may have played this trick. 

Ans. When the narrator landed at the airport, he went to the woman in the control tower to ask for the other pilot. He was told that there was no other flight in the area apart from the one in which he came. Moreover, the other airplane itself did not have any lights on it's wings and seemed to mysteriously appear beside him. 

Q8. In 20-30 words, describe your reaction if you were to come across one of the animals in 'How to Tell Wild Animals' in real life ? 

Ans. If, I were to come across the lion, I would be excited to see them from a safe distance because it is hard to find wild animals in the city. 

Q9. In 40-50 words, mention two of your favourite animals from 'How to Tell Wild Animals' with a reason supporting each choice. 

Ans. Two of my favourite animals from the poem are the Chameleon and the Asian Lion. The Chameleon's ability to camouflage itself and attain a colour similar to its background, fascinates me. Moreover, the Lion's mighty roar and tawny coat make it one of my favourites. 

Q10. If you were to compare the animals from the poem 'How to Tell Wild Animals' to people, what personalities would these people have? Pick any two animals from the poem and describe their human counterparts in 100-120 words. 

Ans. The leopard can be a parallel for someone who will cause harm. Just like a leopard will not stop attacking even after one cries for help, a person with such leopard-like tendencies will possibly cause more damage than good. They will try to hurt others around them and cause pain. Further, an animal like a hyena may be a metaphor for a person who pretends to harbour good intent and 'smile' on the outside. However, like the hyena, they may prey on others and use them for their gain. Innocent people may not be able to sense their duplicity and may fall prey to their underhanded ways. 

Q11. He senses first responsibility in a world of possessions, In the above lines from The Ball Poem', what does the poet mean when he says that
the boy senses 'first responsibility' after losing the ball ? Answer in 20-30 words. 

Ans. The boy learns that he must be responsible for the things that he owns as they can be lost or taken away from him easily. 

Q12. What is the boy's loss of his ball used as a metaphor for in The Ball Poem' ? Support your answer with one point of evidence from the poem in 40-50 words. 

Ans. The boy's loss of his ball has been used as a metaphor for the painful transition into adulthood. The poet states that the child is learning about the nature of loss that he will have to deal with at many points in life. 

Q13. Identify and explain the literary devices in this poem. 

What is the boy now, who has lost his ball,

What, what is he to do? I saw it go

Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then

Merrily over - there it is in the water ...

In the above lines from 'The Ball Poem', the poet uses imagery and repetition. In 100 words, identify both these literary devices and the effect of each one on the reader.

Ans. The poet uses repetition in the poem, emphasising 'what' thrice in the first two sentences. This helps him draw attention to the boy's loss and the feelings of anger and sadness this has caused. On a deeper level, repetition helps him show the loss of purpose and emptiness which accompanies loss in life. He uses repetition in the word 'merrily' which helps highlight the ball's movement, 'bouncing, down the street.' This allows an emphasis on the sudden nature of loss which happens when one least expects it. Thus, the literary devices enable the poet to highlight the seriousness of loss. He also explores the nature and impact of loss through these devices. 

Q14. Who would Anne consider a real friend based on 'The Diary of Anne Frank' ? Describe in 20-30 words. 

Ans. Anne would call someone a real friend if she could share whatever is in her heart and confide in him or her. She would be able to get very close to such a person. 

Q15. How does Anne Frank's writing engage readers? Comment on any one aspect with evidence from 'The Diary of Anne Frank' in 40-50 words. 

Ans. I think Anne Frank's writing engages readers because it is easy for readers to understand her story. For instance, before she starts her first entry, she gives a brief sketch of her life. This background information helps the reader to understand her context. 

Q16. In 'The Diary of Anne Frank', how does Anne Frank feel about Mr Keesing's essay assignments and what is her purpose for writing them? Describe what this tells us about her in 100-1 20 words.  

Ans. Anne takes Mr Keesing's essay assignments as a challenge. She thinks Mr Keesing is either trying to teach her a lesson or make fun of her by doing so. Therefore, for the first essay, her purpose is to convince Mr Keesing of the importance of talking and why it is impossible for her to talk less. For her third essay, she tries to be inventive and composes a poem to humour Mr Keesing. Both these incidents show us that Anne is a creative person who takes challenges in her stride. After the submission of all her essays, she is also successful in being permitted to talk in class. This also shows that she is a good writer.

Q17. Peggy has her way of 'having fun' with Wanda in the school yard but she also appreciates Wanda's talent while not being declared the winner herself. How would you describe Peggy's character? In 40-50 words, support your answer with evidence from 'The Hundred Dresses-I'. 

Ans. I think Peggy comes across as selfish. When she bullies Wanda, she does not consider the impact her actions could have on Wanda and thinks it is ok. At the same time, she is also an honest person who is able to appreciate Wanda's work as a budding artist.  

Q18. There was one boy named Bounce, Willie Bounce, and people thought that was funny, but not funny in the same way that Petronski was. How was Wanda's surname 'funny' ? What happened to Wanda because of her 'funny' surname ? Answer in 40-50 words with reference to 'The Hundred Dresses-I'. 

Ans. The name Petronski indicates that Wanda is a Polish immigrant. The other American students in her school made fun of the name and used it to bully Wanda when the teacher was not supervising the students, such as outside the classroom.

Q19. State two ways in which Wanda's seating position is different from Peggy a seating positions. What kind of a student gets to occupy the front seats ? 120 words with reference to 'The Hundred Dresses-I'.  

Ans. Wanda sits at the back of the classroom, the place where the 'rough boys', who are shown as ill-mannered people, sit. It is also the place where people with muddy feet and poor grades sit. Peggy and Maddie, on the other hand, sit at the front which is where the students who get good marks and have clean shoes sit. The story indicates that students who can afford to look presentable, travel to school safely, i.e. students who are rich, and are academically bright usually sit in the front seats.

Q20. In 'The Hundred Dresses-II', whose behaviour do you think was worse : Peggy's teasing or Maddie's silence ? Answer with a reason in 40-50 words. 

Ans. I think Maddie's behaviour was worse than Peggy's because she related with Wanda and could tell that she would feel humiliated by Peggy's questions. Maddie knew how Wanda might be feeling and did not do anything to stop it. 

Q21. Imagine you are Wanda from 'The Hundred Dresses-II'. You feel bullied and humiliated by Peggy's behaviour. In 40-50 words, describe any two steps you would take to deal with bullying effectively. 

Ans. As Wanda, I would talk to one of my teachers in school, someone I trust, and inform him/her of the situation so that they can stop bullying from happening in school. I would also tell a close friend so he/she can make me feel safe and comforted. 

Q22. She had a very sick feeling in the bottom of her stomach. Identify Maddie's emotion in the above line from 'The Hundred Dresses-II'. Why did she feel this way after Miss Mason read the letter to the students ? Answer in 40-50 words. 

Ans. Maddie had a sick feeling because she felt guilty. She thought about how Wanda might have felt because of Peggy's teasing, but did not try to stop it. She thought her silence was as bad as Peggy's bullying. 

Q23. Do you think Maddie's and Peggy's reasons for wanting to visit Wanda in Boggins Heights were different ? In 40-50 words, justify your stance with a reason from 'The Hundred Dresses-II'. 

Ans. I think their reasons for visiting Wanda were different. Maddie wanted to go because she wanted to make amends with Wanda. Peggy wanted to see if Wanda had indeed left because of how they treated her. Maddie wanted to apologise, whereas Peggy wanted to confirm that she did not do anything wrong.

Q24. In 20-30 words, explain what the poet of 'Animals' means when he says that humans kneel to their own kind from thousands of years ago. 

Ans. 'Kneeling to their own kind' refers to religion and worship. Many human beings practice the worship of saints and sages who lived thousands of years ago and gained followers by leading extraordinary, virtuous lives. 

Q25. I wonder where they get those tokens, Did I pass that way huge times ago and negligently drop them ? In 40-50 words, explain the metaphor in the above lines from the poem 'Animals'. 

Ans. ' Tokens' refers to qualities like simplicity, innocence and satisfaction that humans once had but now, only animals do. The poet wonders if he was a part of their world a long time ago and has lost these traits during the course of evolution.

Q26. In the poem 'Animals', what qualities of animals fascinate the poet ? Why does he say that he wants to 'turn and live' with them ? Explain in 40-50 words. 

Ans. Animals are calm and are not generally upset by day to day happenings. They are happy with what they have and do not complain about their lives. The poet feels that animals reflect his true nature and so he'd rather live with them. 

Q27. Unlike Animals, human beings are restless because they are conscious of their own life, thoughts and emotions. In 100-120 words, justify the opinion above with reference to the poem 'Animals' by Walt Whitman. 

Ans. Humans are portrayed by the poet as restless creatures. They are aware of themselves and their surroundings and are anxious to change it. They lose sleep over thoughts of their flaws and shortcomings. They are filled with regret and are consumed with concepts like gaining respect and trying to achieve material wealth. This makes them miserable. Animals, on the other hand, are simple creatures who always live in the moment. Their actions are guided by simpler instincts and they do not pass their time in wasteful thoughts and self-reflection. This is why they are always calm and content and live their lives in harmony with nature.

Q28. In the poem 'Animals', the poet states that humans are discontented with their lives and have become materialistic. In 100-120 words, explain why humans might have adopted these values and how it affects them. 

Ans. Human beings are manic about owning things and increasing their wealth. They are also constantly restless about their lives and are not satisfied with how much they have. Human beings live in societies where one has to earn his/her living. The more one earns, the more one can own and that makes people greedy. Therefore, human beings have become materialistic because they are always striving for more wealth. They are discontented because, unlike animals, they have the ability to think about their own actions and behaviours. So, they are anxious about the choices they make. They keep thinking about whether or not the choice they've made is the best one.

Q29. How does the author establish that the pader is an important part of Goan society ? Support your answer with one example from 'A Baker from Goa' in 40-50 words. 

Ans. Bread is an integral part of the Goan society. It is essential to weddings and celebration of festivals like Christmas, in Goa. For instance, a wedding gift in Goa is 'meaningless' without the sweet bread bol. Therefore, the baker of the bread, the pader, is important in Goan society. 

Q30. How does the author create a sense of nostalgia in the story 'A Baker from Goa' ? Support your answer with one piece of evidence from the story in 40-50 words. 

Ans. The author creates a sense of nostalgia in the story by talking fondly of his childhood in Goa. He recollects his childhood memories of the pader. He revisits the joyous days when they would eagerly await bread bangles and peep into the pader's basket the slightest opportunity. 

Q31. With reference to 'A Baker from Goa', describe any two aspects of Goan lifestyle which show Portuguese influence. In 100-120 words, support each aspect with evidence from the text.

Ans. Portuguese influence finds its way into many aspects of Goan life. In particular, it can be observed in the age-old baking practices and cultural traditions. The narrator mentions that even today, the mixers, moulders, and makers of loaves are carrying forward the Portuguese legacy of bread baking in Goa. They still use the old furnaces and go on rounds with a bamboo, selling their bread. These bakers are still known as 'pader' in Goa, which is originally a word used in Portuguese language. The culture around bread also spreads to marriages and other ceremonies. The Goans gift the sweet bread called bol during weddings.

Q32. I do, however, prefer to step aside for wild elephants. What ts the tone of the above line from the text 'Coorg' ? What does the author want to
indicate in this line ? State your response in 20-30 words. 

Ans. The tone of this line is humourous. The author is saying that wild elephants can be dangerous.

Q33. Which time of the year would you recommend someone to visit Coorg ? Justify your answer with details from the text 'Glimpses of India: Coorg' in 40-50 words. 

Ans. September to March is considered the most pleasant months of Coorg as the weather is cool with light rain. Any time in these months would be recommended to visitors as they can explore Coorg. It rains heavily during the months of monsoon during which time, it is difficult to go outside.

Q34. Which aspects of Coorg does the author explore from a historical perspective ? Describe any two aspects in detail in 40-50 words. 

Ans. The author explores the history of the cultural descent of the Coorgi people, their traditional wear called kuppia and mentions General Cariappa of the army. Regarding the traditional dress kuppia, the author traces its origins to the Arab dress kuffia which looks like a long coat, worn with a belt.

Q35. The text 'Glimpses of India : Coorg' is only a factual description of the place and its culture. In 100-120 words, state your opinion on the above statement and justify it with any two points about the author's writing style and its effects on the reader. 

Ans.  I disagree that Coorg as a text only deals with factual descriptions. While it does give the reader information on the climate, flora, fauna and culture of Coorg, the author's description also romanticises Coorg. After reading the text, one can imagine what Coorg looks like and could feel like to a visitor. The author makes use of imagery to describe the landscape and climate of Coorg. The reader also feels more connected to the various animals that can be found in Coorg. This could be because the author personifies the animals to describe them. 

 

Nurturing Healthy Student-Teacher Relationships in the Modern Era

 

#. Nurturing Healthy Student-Teacher Relationships in the Modern Era

In the ever-evolving landscape of education, fostering strong relationships between students and teachers remains paramount. As technology advances and societal norms shift, the dynamics of these relationships may change, but the core principles remain constant: trust, respect, communication, and empathy. In this blog, we explore how to effectively manage student-teacher relationships in the modern era.

 1. Embrace Technology as a Tool

Technology can be a double-edged sword in education. While it offers new avenues for communication and learning, it can also create barriers between students and teachers. Embrace technology as a tool to enhance interaction rather than replace it. Utilize platforms for virtual office hours, discussion boards, and messaging apps to maintain accessibility and foster open communication.

2. Establish Clear Boundaries

In the digital age, boundaries can become blurred, especially with the prevalence of social media. It's essential to establish clear boundaries between students and teachers to maintain professionalism and integrity. Clearly communicate expectations regarding communication channels, response times, and appropriate topics for discussion. Encourage students to respect these boundaries while also modeling respectful behavior.

3. Cultivate Mutual Respect

Respect is the foundation of any healthy relationship, including those between students and teachers. Cultivate an environment of mutual respect by acknowledging each other's perspectives, valuing diverse opinions, and treating everyone with dignity. Encourage open dialogue where students feel comfortable expressing themselves and teachers actively listen without judgment.

 4. Practice Empathy and Understanding

Empathy is key to building strong connections with students. Recognize that each student has unique needs, backgrounds, and experiences. Take the time to understand their individual challenges and support them accordingly. Show empathy by being approachable, supportive, and understanding of their circumstances. Empathetic teachers create a safe and inclusive environment where students feel valued and understood.

 5. Foster Collaboration and Engagement

Encourage collaboration and active participation to empower students in their learning journey. Incorporate interactive teaching methods, group activities, and project-based learning to foster engagement and teamwork. Create opportunities for students to take ownership of their learning and contribute meaningfully to class discussions. When students feel actively involved, they are more likely to develop a sense of belonging and connection with their teachers.

 6. Provide Constructive Feedback

Feedback is a crucial aspect of the learning process and plays a vital role in student-teacher relationships. Provide constructive feedback that is specific, timely, and actionable. Focus on highlighting strengths while also identifying areas for improvement. Encourage students to see feedback as an opportunity for growth rather than criticism. By offering support and guidance, teachers can help students reach their full potential.

 7. Lead by Example

As role models, teachers have a significant influence on their students. Lead by example by demonstrating integrity, resilience, and a commitment to lifelong learning. Show enthusiasm for your subject matter and a genuine interest in your students' success. Be transparent about your own experiences and challenges, fostering a culture of authenticity and trust.

In conclusion, managing student-teacher relationships in the modern era requires a thoughtful and proactive approach. By embracing technology responsibly, establishing clear boundaries, cultivating mutual respect, practicing empathy, fostering collaboration, providing constructive feedback, and leading by example, educators can create a supportive and inclusive learning environment where students thrive. These principles form the bedrock of strong student-teacher relationships, which are essential for academic success and personal growth in today's fast-paced world.

CBSE Class 10 & 12 Exam 2024: Last-Minute Preparation Tips to Help You Secure High Score.

Last minutes Revision Tips for CBSE Board Exam 2024 :

CBSE Class 10 and 12 examinations for the year 2024 have started! As the clock ticks down, it's natural to feel a mixture of excitement and nervousness. But don't be afraid! With the right strategies and a focused approach, you can maximize your chances of scoring high scores.

All CBSE 10th, 12th students must keep some things in mind before the last minute of their paper.

But don't panic, brave student! These last minute tips will help you stay calm, focused and prepared to score high in the upcoming CBSE Class 10 and 12 exams.

Let's look at some practical tips to help you ace those exams:

To help you sail through this period effectively and ensure a high score, here are some simple yet effective tips to keep in mind.

Revise Smartly:

• Concise notes: Create short, crisp revision notes with key points, formulas, and diagrams. Revise these regularly to refresh your memory.
• Mind maps & flashcards: Use mind maps or flashcards for complex topics. They help visualize information and aid memorization.
• Explain it like I'm 5: Try explaining concepts to an imaginary friend. This deepens your understanding and identifies areas needing revision.

Maintain a Healthy Lifestyle

• Prioritize sleep, regular exercise, and a balanced diet.
• Incorporate stress-relief techniques such as meditation or deep breathing to stay focused.

Clear Your Doubts

• Don’t hesitate to ask questions! Clear your doubts promptly.
• Engage in group study and discussions with classmates for better understanding.

Believe in Yourself

• Positive self-belief goes a long way. Trust your preparation and abilities.
• Stay calm during the exams. You’ve got this!

Conquer Exam Day Anxiety

• Stay organized: Pack your essentials the night before.
• Arrive early at the exam center.
• Take a deep breath, read the questions carefully, and tackle them one by one.

Bonus Tip: Stay positive and believe in yourself! A positive attitude can work wonders towards achieving your goals. Remember, everyone feels nervous, but you have prepared well and are capable of doing great.

Remember:

• Start early with these tips for the best results.
• Focus on understanding concepts, not just memorizing facts.
• Manage your time effectively during the exam.
• Read questions carefully and answer to the point.
• Stay calm and composed throughout the exam.

A Comprehensive Guide to Nailing Your Board Examinations 2024: Tips for the Last 15 Days.

 

#.  Tips for the Last 15 Days for your Board Exam 2024.

With board examinations just around the corner, it's natural to feel a mix of excitement and nerves. But fret not! With proper planning and preparation, you can tackle your exams with confidence and ace them like a pro. Here's a comprehensive guide packed with tips to help you make the most of the last 15 days before your board examinations:

1. Create a Study Schedule:

   - Allocate specific time slots for each subject, focusing on topics that require more attention.

   - Include short breaks to avoid burnout and maintain productivity.

2. Revise Smartly:

   - Prioritize topics based on their weightage in the exam and your proficiency level.

   - Make concise notes or flashcards for quick revision.

   - Solve previous years' question papers to understand the exam pattern and identify important topics.

3. Practice Time Management:

   - Simulate exam conditions and practice solving papers within the stipulated time frame.

   - Divide your time wisely among different sections of the exam paper.

   - Learn to skip difficult questions and revisit them later if time permits.

4. Stay Healthy:

   - Ensure you get adequate sleep to stay refreshed and focused during study sessions.

   - Eat a balanced diet rich in nutrients to fuel your brain and body.

   - Incorporate short exercise breaks to boost blood circulation and relieve stress.

5. Minimize Distractions:

   - Create a conducive study environment free from distractions like social media or excessive noise.

   - Inform family and friends about your study schedule to minimize interruptions.

6. Seek Clarifications:

   - Don't hesitate to reach out to teachers or classmates if you have doubts or need clarification on any topic.

   - Join study groups for collaborative learning and peer support.

7. Practice Mindfulness:

   - Incorporate relaxation techniques like deep breathing or meditation to calm exam jitters.

   - Visualize success and maintain a positive mindset to boost confidence.

8. Stay Updated:

   - Keep abreast of any changes or updates regarding the examination schedule or guidelines issued by the board.

9. Take Care of Yourself: 

   - Prioritize self-care and indulge in activities that help you relax and unwind, whether it's listening to music, reading a book, or spending time with loved ones.

10. Believe in Yourself:

   - Remember, you've put in the hard work, and you're well-prepared to excel in your board examinations.

   - Trust your abilities and stay focused on giving your best effort.

By following these tips and staying disciplined in your approach, you can navigate the last 15 days leading up to your board examinations with confidence and ease. Remember to stay calm, stay focused, and believe in yourself. You've got this! Good luck!

CBSE 10,12 Exam 2024 : How to Write Perfect Answers in Board Exam; Check Effective Tips, Tricks and Techniques

 

#. HOW TO WRITE PERFECT ANSWERS IN COMING BOARD EXAM 2024:

            ( RAKESH PRATYUSH GUPTA )

Central Board of Secondary Education is all set to start CBSE 10th, 12th Board Exam 2024 from February 15, 2024. While students are eagerly waiting for CBSE Admit Card 2024, preparing for CBSE board exams in the post-pandemic era is quite stressful.

CBSE 10th, 12th exams are going to start in a few days, preparing for such an important exam is no easy task, that too when the board has asked the students to prepare the entire syllabus. Students should start their CBSE Class 10th, 12th Board Exam 2024 preparations as soon as possible. However, students should know that thorough preparation as well as understanding the art of writing board exam answers is necessary to secure excellent CBSE 10th, 12th Board Result 2024.

After sharing the most effective preparation tips to score above 90% in CBSE Class 10th, 12th Result 2024, we would like to share some smart ways to write answers in CBSE 10th, 12th board exam to get excellent board results.

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Tips to Write Correct Answers for Excellent CBSE 10th, 12th Result 2024.

Board exams do not mean completing the syllabus completely. What matters most is the presentation of what students have read. Understanding the art of writing and expressing answers during board exams is the most important step to achieve excellent CBSE 10th, 12th results. After working hard for CBSE 10th, 12th board exams, your hard work should be reflected in the answer sheet. Students should learn proper techniques and strategies to write CBSE board exam answers in the best way and complete the exam on time.

https://www.youtube.com/live/mzXQU0H9kQ0?si=30GUGtoWncgCemRPhttps://www.youtube.com/live/mzXQU0H9kQ0?si=30GUGtoWncgCemRP

1. Understand CBSE Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

CBSE sample papers for all subjects for CBSE 10th and CBSE 12th students are released by the board on the official website. When teachers are asked how to prepare for CBSE board exams to score well they often recommend practicing CBSE sample papers. They also ask students to look at the marking schemes released by the board to understand how their answers will be evaluated in the board exams. Knowing the subject-wise weightage prescribed by CBSE helps students to prepare their study plan well.

2. Cover CBSE syllabus thoroughly

Over the years, many toppers have talked about this secret mantra to excel in board exams. Almost 90 percent of CBSE board exam question papers come from NCERT books. Students are advised to completely complete the prescribed CBSE syllabus from their books before going in search of external study material.

3. Practice Previous Year CBSE Question Papers

Just as it is important to complete the prescribed syllabus of CBSE, it is also important to study the previously asked questions. Practicing previous year CBSE question papers helps students to develop strategy and pace for taking board exams. Once they complete the syllabus and revision, students are advised to start practicing question papers to track their preparation level and know where they are lacking in their preparation for the CBSE 12th Board Exam. Practice papers for Mathematics, Physics, Accountancy, Chemistry and other subjects help students track the pattern, style and type of questions that never change over the years.

4. Use the extra 15 minutes

CBSE's idea of giving an extra 15 minutes to read the question paper is aimed at helping students analyze the set of questions and prepare a rough draft in their mind about how to approach them. Students are advised to make a plan in these 15 minutes and analyze the questions for which they are fully prepared. Divide the sections and set fixed time limits to solve them.

5. Set Priorities

Students are advised to start the CBSE board exam with the questions they are most confident about. There is no need to write answers in the same order as in the question paper. However, the student should be careful while entering the 'Answer Number'. Students should start with questions to which they know the exact answers. This will help you gain confidence while maintaining momentum. This will also help students find time for questions they are less confident about.

6. Follow the Marking Scheme

In the first point, we asked students to understand the marking scheme as it will help them decide the time limit based on the weightage of the section as well as questions. For example, a 1 mark question may require only 1 minute, while a 6 mark question will require 8-10 minutes. Students will be able to follow this step only after practicing CBSE sample papers, previous year CBSE question papers and understanding the CBSE marking scheme.

7. Short and Precise Answer

You can never get marks by writing long answers. However, a well-structured, concise and precise answer always has the potential to impress the observer. Avoid writing stories and stick to the point asked in the question. While solving CBSE board exam question paper try to divide the answers into bullet points. Present the answer as clearly as possible, covering all aspects of the topic. Always follow the word limit.

8. Choose Questions Wisely

CBSE board exam question papers often contain internal choices. It is important to choose the right option in internal choice questions. Students are advised to keep the answers to both the questions in their mind and choose the one about which they are most confident. Picking a question randomly in a hurry and regretting it later can lead to poor scores and ineffective CBSE 12th Result 2024.

9. Attempt All Questions

Students should start with the questions they are most confident about. However, they should not leave any questions. Since there is no negative marking for wrong answers in CBSE board exams, students can attempt all the questions without the fear of losing marks. Since there is nothing to lose, students should spend the remaining time on these questions. Read and re-read the question, think about the topic and make a smart guess. Examiners are always looking for technical terms or suitable keywords where they can give you marks.

10. Write Clearly, Maintain Consistency, don't Panic

Students should not panic despite having no idea about the answers. Due to anxiety and stress, students will forget even their best answers. No matter what the handwriting is like, try to write as clearly as possible. Do not decorate the answer sheet. Keep the answer clear. Leave appropriate space between answers. Show the answer sheet with well-structured answers written in proper format.

11. Make the Most of the Last 15 Minutes

Just as the extra 15 minutes are important for planning CBSE board exams, similarly the last 15 minutes help a lot in scoring excellent marks in CBSE board papers. Students are advised to utilize the last 15 minutes in revising the answers, checking the answer numbers, counting the attached sheets, etc. This last step will help students to correct careless mistakes, add important points, check the structure of answers, mention roll numbers. correctly, etc.

Students can score optimum marks in CBSE 12th Result 2024 by properly applying these techniques while preparing their answers. This will also help students to complete CBSE 12th board papers on time.